7/16/2008 10:33 AM
Robert wrote:
Couple of questions this time. I've been studying the gospels lately and have found many instances where the scripture only states that "Jesus taught" but does not go into detail regarding his teaching. Are we to assume that his teaching on these occasions was repetition of other teachings recorded or that perhaps they were applicable only to the individuals to whom he was teaching?
Jephthah vowed to offer up a sacrifice to God of whatever (or whomever depending on translation) greeted him upon his return from battle if God would give his enemy into his hand. What input can you provide regarding the sacrifice? God only asked for a human sacrifice at one point recorded in the Bible and that was only a test of faith and the sacrifice was not carried through. What do you understand to have happened to his daughter?
You've mentioned previously Paul's "thorn in the flesh", what do you understand regarding this "condition"?
In 2 Corinthians 12, Paul mentions someone who was carried up into heaven in a vision and that Paul knew that man. Many believe that this vision was experienced by Paul himself, but it seems to me that Paul would not have been the one receiving the vision based on his statements of vs. 2 and 3 ("I knew a man") and then in vs. 5 "Of such and one will I glory (boast), but fo myself I will not glory (boast)." The vision he describes is much like that which John records in Revelation. I think many believe this to not be John because 2 Chorinthians was penned some 40 years before John penned Revelation. I don't think this would necessarily eliminate John since the birth of Christ wasn't written until at least 30+ years after it occured. I don't believe Paul would speak of himself in the third person since he does not do so in any other instance and does not seem to be consistent with his general personality. What are your thoughts? Reply to this
Couple of questions this time.
I've been studying the gospels lately and have found many instances where the
scripture only states that "Jesus taught" but does not go into detail
regarding his teaching. Are we to assume that his teaching on these occasions
was repetition of other teachings recorded or that perhaps they were applicable
only to the individuals to whom he was teaching?
I guess I’ve missed something along the way.
I do not find “many instances where the scripture only states that ‘Jesus
taught’.” The only translations that state that ‘Jesus taught’ are the Revised
Standard Version (Mark 12:35), and reveals exactly what Jesus taught; the
International Standard Version (Lk. 13:22) where it is simply a statement of
fact as to where he taught, and does reveal one subject He taught; and the New
Century Version (Mark 4:2; Luke 19:47; 21:37; Rev. 12:17; 1 Jn. 3:15) where the
text either describes the subject matter, or once again is simply dealing with
“where” Jesus taught.
Be that as it may, we
are not to “assume” anything. We are assured that the “Comforter, even the Holy
Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you (the apostles,
emp. mine, ret) all things, and bring to your remembrance all that I said unto
you” (John 14:26) and “he
(the Holy Spirit, Ibid.) shall guide you into all the truth” (John 16:13). Thus, “seeing that his divine power hath
granted unto us all things that pertain unto life and godliness” (2 Peter 1:3),
and “Every scripture inspired of God is also profitable for teaching, for
reproof, for correction, for instruction which is in righteousness: that the
man of God may be complete, furnished completely unto every good work” (2
Timothy 3:16-17), we can be assured that we have all the teaching of the Father
that pertains to life and godliness.
Jephthah vowed to offer up a
sacrifice to God of whatever (or whomever depending on translation) greeted him
upon his return from battle if God would give his enemy into his hand. What
input can you provide regarding the sacrifice? God only asked for a human
sacrifice at one point recorded in the Bible and that was only a test of faith
and the sacrifice was not carried through. What do you understand to have
happened to his daughter?
First of all, God did not ask Jephthah for a
sacrifice of any kind: This was of Jephthah’s own doing. I have heard some
fanciful explanations regarding Jephthah’s vow. However, “when is a
burnt-offering, not a burnt-offering?” To my knowledge there is not one
reference, in the scriptures, where a burnt-offering was anything less than a
burnt-offering. There are two ways to view the event: either it’s figurative or
it’s literal. If it’s figurative, then there is something within the text to
make it so: I find nothing of the sort. If the text does not demand a
figurative application, then it must be taken literally. I do know what the
scriptures say concerning words, and vows: “in the multitude of words there
wanteth not transgression; But he that refraineth his lips doeth wisely”
(Proverbs 10:19); “When
thou voweth a vow unto God, defer not to pay it; for he hath no pleasure in
fools: pay that which thou voweth. Better is it that thou shouldest not vow,
than that thou shouldest vow and not pay. Suffer not thy mouth to cause thy
flesh to sin; neither say thou before the angel, that it was an error:
wherefore should God be angry at thy voice, and destroy the work of thy hands?
For in the multitude of dreams there are vanities, and in many words: but fear
thou God” (Ecclesiastes 5:4-7).
You've mentioned previously
Paul's "thorn in the flesh", what do you understand regarding this
"condition"?
I understand of this “condition,” that it’s attached to your next
question. So, let’s just put them together.
In 2 Corinthians 12, Paul mentions someone who was carried up into heaven in a
vision and that Paul knew that man. Many believe that this vision was
experienced by Paul himself, but it seems to me that Paul would not have been
the one receiving the vision based on his statements of vs. 2 and 3 ("I knew
a man") and then in vs. 5 "Of such and one will I glory (boast), but
for myself I will not glory (boast)." The vision he describes is much like
that which John records in Revelation. I think many believe this to not be John
because 2 Corinthians was penned some 40 years before John penned Revelation. I
don't think this would necessarily eliminate John since the birth of Christ
wasn't written until at least 30+ years after it occurred. I don't believe Paul
would speak of himself in the third person since he does not do so in any other
instance and does not seem to be consistent with his general personality. What
are your thoughts?
The context of these
statements began in chapter 10. There were apparently certain individuals in Corinth that were bringing disparaging charges
against Paul: Charging him of walking “according to the flesh,” that his
“letters, they say, are weighty and strong; but his bodily presence is weak,
and his speech of no account.” These were men that compared “themselves with
themselves” and were thereby “without understanding.” Much to Paul’s dislike,
he finds himself in a position of self-vindication, and does so through the end
of chapter twelve.
As a part of Paul’s
vindication, he makes a contrast between what others saw in him and the true
reality of things. Though he had been charged with being weak, he was indeed,
through those weaknesses, strong. Of all the men who had reason to boast, as
did those who were attacking Paul’s apostleship, he alone had reason to boast,
but had not, up to this point in time. Your observation that “I don't
believe Paul would speak of himself in the third person since he does not do so
in any other instance and does not seem to be consistent with his general
personality,” is not conclusive. John
refers to himself in the third person only twice:John 1:35-42; 21:24, and Matthew but once, 9:9). However, it
was not consistent with Paul’s personality to “boast” either (which he affirms
in this dissertation), but the circumstances required it…even though he regarded
it as foolish. This is an event that transpired in the life of Paul fourteen
years prior to his mentioning of it. Paul knew that boasting was not expedient,
but it was necessary to deal with his vindication. His statement, “whether in
the body, or apart from the body, I know not,” “For if I should desire to
glory, I shall not be foolish; for I shall speak the truth: but I forbear, lest
any man should account of me above that which he seeth me to be, or heareth
from me,” “And by reason of the exceeding greatness of the revelations, that I
should not be exalted overmuch, there was given to me a thorn in the flesh, a
messenger of Satan to buffet me, that I should not be exalted overmuch” indicates that it was indeed Paul that was
“caught up even to the third heaven.” Imagine the dangers associated with this
event in the life of Paul: He had authority as an apostle of Jesus Christ, he
had been “caught up even to the third heaven,” and for fourteen years had said
nothing, where men of lesser values would have spread it abroad, gloried in the
fact, exalted themselves, and been exalted by others. When Paul instructed
Timothy concerning the qualifications of elders, he said, “not a novice, lest
being puffed up he fall into the condemnation of the devil” (1 Timothy 3:6). In
the same manner, Paul said, by virtue of the “exceeding greatness of the
revelations, that I should not be exalted overmuch, there was given to me a
thorn in the flesh, a messenger of Satan to buffet me, that I should not be
exalted overmuch.” What this “thorn in the flesh” was, the text does not
reveal, and there it should remain.
After all that Paul had done, for
their edification, he said, “I am become foolish: ye compelled me; for I ought
to have been commended of you: for in nothing was I behind the very chiefest
apostles, though I am nothing. Truly the signs of an apostle were wrought among
you in all patience, by signs, and wonders and mighty works. For what is there
wherein ye were made inferior to the rest of the churches, except it be that I
myself was not a burden to you? forgive me this wrong.” Reply to this
Couple of questions this time. I've been studying the gospels lately and have found many instances where the scripture only states that "Jesus taught" but does not go into detail regarding his teaching. Are we to assume that his teaching on these occasions was repetition of other teachings recorded or that perhaps they were applicable only to the individuals to whom he was teaching?
Jephthah vowed to offer up a sacrifice to God of whatever (or whomever depending on translation) greeted him upon his return from battle if God would give his enemy into his hand. What input can you provide regarding the sacrifice? God only asked for a human sacrifice at one point recorded in the Bible and that was only a test of faith and the sacrifice was not carried through. What do you understand to have happened to his daughter?
You've mentioned previously Paul's "thorn in the flesh", what do you understand regarding this "condition"?
In 2 Corinthians 12, Paul mentions someone who was carried up into heaven in a vision and that Paul knew that man. Many believe that this vision was experienced by Paul himself, but it seems to me that Paul would not have been the one receiving the vision based on his statements of vs. 2 and 3 ("I knew a man") and then in vs. 5 "Of such and one will I glory (boast), but fo myself I will not glory (boast)." The vision he describes is much like that which John records in Revelation. I think many believe this to not be John because 2 Chorinthians was penned some 40 years before John penned Revelation. I don't think this would necessarily eliminate John since the birth of Christ wasn't written until at least 30+ years after it occured. I don't believe Paul would speak of himself in the third person since he does not do so in any other instance and does not seem to be consistent with his general personality. What are your thoughts?
Reply to this
Couple of questions this time. I've been studying the gospels lately and have found many instances where the scripture only states that "Jesus taught" but does not go into detail regarding his teaching. Are we to assume that his teaching on these occasions was repetition of other teachings recorded or that perhaps they were applicable only to the individuals to whom he was teaching?
I guess I’ve missed something along the way. I do not find “many instances where the scripture only states that ‘Jesus taught’.” The only translations that state that ‘Jesus taught’ are the Revised Standard Version (Mark 12:35), and reveals exactly what Jesus taught; the International Standard Version (Lk. 13:22) where it is simply a statement of fact as to where he taught, and does reveal one subject He taught; and the New Century Version (Mark 4:2; Luke 19:47; 21:37; Rev. 12:17; 1 Jn. 3:15) where the text either describes the subject matter, or once again is simply dealing with “where” Jesus taught.
Be that as it may, we are not to “assume” anything. We are assured that the “Comforter, even the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, he shall teach you (the apostles, emp. mine, ret) all things, and bring to your remembrance all that I said unto you” (John14:26 ) and “he
(the Holy Spirit, Ibid.) shall guide you into all the truth” (John 16:13 ). Thus, “seeing that his divine power hath
granted unto us all things that pertain unto life and godliness” (2 Peter 1:3),
and “Every scripture inspired of God is also profitable for teaching, for
reproof, for correction, for instruction which is in righteousness: that the
man of God may be complete, furnished completely unto every good work” (2
Timothy 3:16-17), we can be assured that we have all the teaching of the Father
that pertains to life and godliness.
Jephthah vowed to offer up a sacrifice to God of whatever (or whomever depending on translation) greeted him upon his return from battle if God would give his enemy into his hand. What input can you provide regarding the sacrifice? God only asked for a human sacrifice at one point recorded in the Bible and that was only a test of faith and the sacrifice was not carried through. What do you understand to have happened to his daughter?
First of all, God did not ask Jephthah for a sacrifice of any kind: This was of Jephthah’s own doing. I have heard some fanciful explanations regarding Jephthah’s vow. However, “when is a burnt-offering, not a burnt-offering?” To my knowledge there is not one reference, in the scriptures, where a burnt-offering was anything less than a burnt-offering. There are two ways to view the event: either it’s figurative or it’s literal. If it’s figurative, then there is something within the text to make it so: I find nothing of the sort. If the text does not demand a figurative application, then it must be taken literally. I do know what the scriptures say concerning words, and vows: “in the multitude of words there wanteth not transgression; But he that refraineth his lips doeth wisely” (Proverbs10:19 ); “When
thou voweth a vow unto God, defer not to pay it; for he hath no pleasure in
fools: pay that which thou voweth. Better is it that thou shouldest not vow,
than that thou shouldest vow and not pay. Suffer not thy mouth to cause thy
flesh to sin; neither say thou before the angel, that it was an error:
wherefore should God be angry at thy voice, and destroy the work of thy hands?
For in the multitude of dreams there are vanities, and in many words: but fear
thou God” (Ecclesiastes 5:4-7).
You've mentioned previously Paul's "thorn in the flesh", what do you understand regarding this "condition"?
I understand of this “condition,” that it’s attached to your next question. So, let’s just put them together.
In 2 Corinthians 12, Paul mentions someone who was carried up into heaven in a vision and that Paul knew that man. Many believe that this vision was experienced by Paul himself, but it seems to me that Paul would not have been the one receiving the vision based on his statements of vs. 2 and 3 ("I knew a man") and then in vs. 5 "Of such and one will I glory (boast), but for myself I will not glory (boast)." The vision he describes is much like that which John records in Revelation. I think many believe this to not be John because 2 Corinthians was penned some 40 years before John penned Revelation. I don't think this would necessarily eliminate John since the birth of Christ wasn't written until at least 30+ years after it occurred. I don't believe Paul would speak of himself in the third person since he does not do so in any other instance and does not seem to be consistent with his general personality. What are your thoughts?
The context of these statements began in chapter 10. There were apparently certain individuals inCorinth that were bringing disparaging charges
against Paul: Charging him of walking “according to the flesh,” that his
“letters, they say, are weighty and strong; but his bodily presence is weak,
and his speech of no account.” These were men that compared “themselves with
themselves” and were thereby “without understanding.” Much to Paul’s dislike,
he finds himself in a position of self-vindication, and does so through the end
of chapter twelve.
As a part of Paul’s vindication, he makes a contrast between what others saw in him and the true reality of things. Though he had been charged with being weak, he was indeed, through those weaknesses, strong. Of all the men who had reason to boast, as did those who were attacking Paul’s apostleship, he alone had reason to boast, but had not, up to this point in time. Your observation that “I don't believe Paul would speak of himself in the third person since he does not do so in any other instance and does not seem to be consistent with his general personality,” is not conclusive. John refers to himself in the third person only twice: John 1:35-42;21:24 , and Matthew but once, 9:9). However, it
was not consistent with Paul’s personality to “boast” either (which he affirms
in this dissertation), but the circumstances required it…even though he regarded
it as foolish. This is an event that transpired in the life of Paul fourteen
years prior to his mentioning of it. Paul knew that boasting was not expedient,
but it was necessary to deal with his vindication. His statement, “whether in
the body, or apart from the body, I know not,” “For if I should desire to
glory, I shall not be foolish; for I shall speak the truth: but I forbear, lest
any man should account of me above that which he seeth me to be, or heareth
from me,” “And by reason of the exceeding greatness of the revelations, that I
should not be exalted overmuch, there was given to me a thorn in the flesh, a
messenger of Satan to buffet me, that I should not be exalted overmuch” indicates that it was indeed Paul that was
“caught up even to the third heaven.” Imagine the dangers associated with this
event in the life of Paul: He had authority as an apostle of Jesus Christ, he
had been “caught up even to the third heaven,” and for fourteen years had said
nothing, where men of lesser values would have spread it abroad, gloried in the
fact, exalted themselves, and been exalted by others. When Paul instructed
Timothy concerning the qualifications of elders, he said, “not a novice, lest
being puffed up he fall into the condemnation of the devil” (1 Timothy 3:6). In
the same manner, Paul said, by virtue of the “exceeding greatness of the
revelations, that I should not be exalted overmuch, there was given to me a
thorn in the flesh, a messenger of Satan to buffet me, that I should not be
exalted overmuch.” What this “thorn in the flesh” was, the text does not
reveal, and there it should remain.
After all that Paul had done, for their edification, he said, “I am become foolish: ye compelled me; for I ought to have been commended of you: for in nothing was I behind the very chiefest apostles, though I am nothing. Truly the signs of an apostle were wrought among you in all patience, by signs, and wonders and mighty works. For what is there wherein ye were made inferior to the rest of the churches, except it be that I myself was not a burden to you? forgive me this wrong.”Reply to this